Example Question - symmetry property

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Symmetry Property and King's Property in Definite Integrals

The given integral is: \[ \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos x}{(4 + \sin x)^2} \, dx \] A suitable method to solve this integral is to use a symmetry property known as the King's property in definite integrals, which uses the substitution \( x = \frac{\pi}{2} - t \) to exploit the symmetrical limits of integration from 0 to \( \frac{\pi}{2} \). Let's apply the King's property and see what we get: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - t)}{(4 + \sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - t))^2} \, dt \] We know that \( \cos(\frac{\pi}{2} - t) = \sin t \) and \( \sin(\frac{\pi}{2} - t) = \cos t \), so substituting these in, we get: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin t}{(4 + \cos t)^2} \, dt \] If we now add the original integral and the transformed integral, we get: \[ 2I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \left( \frac{\cos x}{(4 + \sin x)^2} + \frac{\sin x}{(4 + \cos x)^2} \right) dx \] Now, since the integrand is symmetric about the line \( y = x \), we can rewrite the integral in terms of a single variable: \[ 2I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos x + \sin x}{(4 + \sin x)^2} \, dx \] By observation or using trigonometric identities, notice that: \[ 4 + \sin x + \cos x = (4 + \sin x)(1 + \sec x) \] Now differentiate the denominator with respect to x. \[ d(4+\sin x) = \cos x \,dx \] Now, \[ 2I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{d(4 + \sin x)}{(4 + \sin x)^2} \] This can now be easily integrated using the formula for the integral of a derivative of a function over the function squared: \[ 2I = \left. -\frac{1}{4 + \sin x} \right|_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \] When we plug in the limits, we get: \[ 2I = \left( -\frac{1}{4 + \sin(\frac{\pi}{2})} \right) - \left( -\frac{1}{4 + \sin(0)} \right) \] \[ 2I = \left( -\frac{1}{5} \right) - \left( -\frac{1}{4} \right) \] \[ 2I = -\frac{1}{5} + \frac{1}{4} \] \[ 2I = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{5} \] \[ 2I = \frac{5 - 4}{20} \] \[ 2I = \frac{1}{20} \] Hence, the value of the original integral is: \[ I = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{20} = \frac{1}{40} \]

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